Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. 2 Tim. 2:15

King James AV1611


The Acts of The Apostles

Acts was taught by Dr. James Modlish


Chapter Two


The feast itself came fifty days after the Passover. (Lev. 23:15,16) describes the Jewish Feast and marks it as a commemoration of the giving of the Law at Horeb.

The two heresies extracted from this passage are:

A. You are not saved and "sanctified" until you have the "baptism of the Holy Ghost."

B. The initial evidence of the "baptism of the Holy Ghost" is speaking in tongues. Rather than outline a passage which is a historical narrative, we will list several facts.

[1]. There are no Christians present anywhere in the chapter before or after Peter's message to Israel. The term "Christian" does not even show up in your Bible until (Acts 11:26). Everyone there is a Jew (See vs. 1,5,8-11,14,22,36)

[2]. No one is praying for the gift of tongues, or the baptism of the Holy Ghost before, or after, Pentecost.

[3]. No one in (Acts 2) speaks with an "unknown tongue." All the languages are listed and understood by those raised in them. (vs. 8-11)

[4]. Not one mention is made anywhere in the chapter about Christ dying for anyone's sins (cf. 1 Cor. 15:1-5), and no one is asking anyone how to get saved in that sense, The "Salvation" is from a "Generation" (vs. 40): not from Hell or a Lake of Fire.

[5]. Nobody is baptized "with the Holy Ghost and Fire", for the cloven tongues (vs. 3, are. "LIKE AS OF FIRE."

[6]. Out of 120 disciples (1:15) only eleven have the gift of foreign languages (vs. 7)

[7]. "And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind..." (vs. 2), which never happens where Charismatic -Golossalaic people meet, and never happens when "they pray in the Spirit."

[8]. The "wind" will match the statement of Jesus in (Jn. 3:8) and the companion passage in (Eze. 37:9-14). It may also be compared with Elijah's visitation by the "still small voice" in (1 Kings 19:11,12).

[9]. (VS. 4) says they were "filled" and yet it is obvious that this is also a "baptism" (1:5). In Chapter (4:31) we are told they were "filled with the Holy Ghost" and did not speak in tongues. Furthermore, the "filling of the Spirit" is commanded for every Christian (Eph. 5:18), although the gift of tongues is NOT. Every Christian has been baptized by the Holy Spirit (I Cor. 12:13) but some have gifts considerably better than tongues (1 Cor. 12:31), which is the LEAST gift in any list where it appears. observe that "filling of the Holy Spirit" occurs many times in the book of Acts without any accompanying "tongues" (4:8, 4:31; 6:3,5; 7:55; 9:7; & 13:52).

[10]. "New wine" is defined as the juice of grapes (Isa. 65:8), hanging on a vine (Gen. 40:10). it is squeezed out (Gen. 40:11) into a cup (Matt. 26:29) before any fermentation takes place. It is NOT "old wine" (Lk. 5:39), therefore the charge of (vs. 13) is sarcastic. This is why the Holy Spirit recorded "Others MOCKING said, these men ... etc." The idea is, "These dudes are stoned on cokes. (But such a translation could hardly pass the approval of those who want a "Living Bible" written in the "common language" of the street!)



Section 2



If we are to set our theology straight it is critical that we approach these verses-very carefully to make sure that we do not alter one thing that is found in them. The majority of writers, commentators, revisers, and teachers believe that (Joel 2:28-32) was fulfilled in (Acts 2), and that, therefore, phenomena such as verses (19,20, & 30) are to be spiritualized. Even though this position is much more compatible with modern theology, it is dangerous to try and do away with kingdom promises given to Israel.


[1]. The discourse is still Jewish (vs. 14)

[2]. The Spirit was not poured out on all flesh anywhere in (Acts 2). The Spirit tilled eleven men (or 120 disciples), and the Spirit was no more "poured out" on the 3,000 converts than the converts of (Acts 17:34). They received the gift of the Holy Ghost (Acts 2:38;39) but a "pouring out" never took place.

[3]. The Spirit was not poured out on "all flesh" anywhere in the New Testament before, or after, Pentecost. The born again child of God is born of the Spirit and is not "in the flesh" (Rom. 8:9). The Spirit does not even touch the flesh of the believer at his new birth (Col. 2:11-14), for this is a spiritual circumcision (Rom. 7:4,5) which is done inside the body.

[4]. Nobody dreams any dreams in Acts 2 (vs. 17,18) and the words "and they shall prophecy" are not in (Joel 2:29).

[5]. There are no pillars of smoke in Acts anywhere.

[6]. There is no fulfillment of the dark sun or the bloody moon in Acts.

[7]. Joel is speaking of deliverance in "fit. Zion" (Joel 2:32), where the temple was and "in Jerusalem" (Joel 2:32), which spiritually is called "Sodom and Egypt" (Rev. 11:8)!

[8]. Joel doesn't prophesy of rushing winds and cloven tongues of fire, or even "other tongues" anywhere in his entire book.

It ought to he obvious by now that Joel's prophecy was not fulfilled. Further, Peter does not say that it was fulfilled (as he did in Acts 1:16). He says, "This is that which was SPOKEN by the prophet Joel." Now observe how the word "this" is used in Matt. 16:18 and how it led to the confounding of Peter as the "Rock". Yet, the Scriptures (1 Cor. 10:2-4, 1 Pet. 2:3-6) told you plainly who the "Rock" was!

It is evident therefore, that Simon Peter's "THIS" (Acts 2:16) does not refer to verses (1-6); it refers to the quotation that follows (vs. 17-20) What Peter quotes is not a prophecy of (Acts 2:1-6), but rather the other things that Joel said would take place in the "LAST DAYS" (vs. 17) of Israel.

Because Acts 2:1-6 is a preparation for the last days we must conclude the following:

[1]. Israel, here, is being given a "second chance" to get right after Christ's prayer of (Lk. 23:34) was answered for them. We are dealing with a renewed offer of the "kingdom," for until (Acts 7) this matter is held in abeyance. If the Sanhedrin had officially repented and accepted Christ they would have gone out to Gehenna and fulfilled (Deut. 21:1-9)! And then without any revelation of a mystery body! - Daniel's 70th week would have started, preceded by the rapture of (Song of Sol. 2:10-13, Isa. 26:19-21, and Ps. 50:1-10).

[2]. According to Joel; deliverance would not be at Golgotha (Mt. Calvary) it would be inside the city (Heb. 13:13) on Mt. Zion.

[3]. Salvation at this time (Acts 2:21) was in the form of "deliverance" (Joel 2:32)

[4]. Those who would be saved would be "the remnant" (Joel 3:32), exactly as the remnant of (Rev. 12:17, Zech. 8:6,12, Zeph. 3:13, Amos 5:15), and a dozen other places.

[5]. The "early and latter rain" - called "the former rain, and the latter rain" in (Joel 2:23) cannot be connected with (Acts 2) with a hydraulic coupling. These rains fall in the first month, according to Joel (Joel 2:23) and Pentecost is more than two weeks into the second month. Therefore, all this baloney about the "early and latter rain" referring to the first advent of the Holy Ghost and the 20th century revival of "Pentecostalism" is blatant falsehood.

[6]. Now, the only time that the Spirit of God will be "poured out on all flesh" will be "AFTERWARD" (Joel 2:28), and notice how this thing was worded in (Acts 15:16,17) when James spoke of the conversion of Gentiles in the Millennium. "AFTERWARD" is after the TRIBULATION by virtue of every context dealing with the subject (Heb. 8:10), and the blood, and fire, and "Pillars of smoke" (Joel 2:30) will be literal. "In those days" Joel says (Joel 3:1,2) Israel is redeemed and restored (Lk. 1:68-79) and the phenomena that accompanies the last days of this Tribulation are described in detail in (Joel 3: 9-21).



Section 3


Vs. 22

[1]. "Ye men of Israel" - This should settle any doubt in the mind of any honest Christian as to the nature of the address that Peter is about to give. Compare with vs. 14 and vs. 36.

[2]. "...Jesus of Nazareth, a man..." This is a Jewish designation for an earthly prophet sent to Israel. Paul never refers to Christ as "The Son of man" in his epistles, and yet, this term is found scores of times in Matt., Mark and Luke. John uses the term more sparingly and tells us why in Jn. 20:31. John's gospel magnifies the Deity of Christ - hence in. 1:1-6 is the lineage of a man whose real genealogy has no beginning in time. Jn. 1-3 gives no human genealogy.

[3]. "...Miracles and wonders and signs" This locates the ministry of the Apostles in no uncertain terms, and the words occur several times in the Book (2:19,22,43; 4:30; 5:12; 7:36; 8:13; & 14:3). A search of these verses demonstrate that APOSTOLIC SUCCESSION was found only within the nation of Israel. The signs and wonders given Moses are given to Jesus Christ (Deut. 18:15-20) and He passes them on to the Jewish Apostles (Mk. 16:14-20; 2 Cor. 12:12). With the death of the last Apostle, there are no Apostles left to lay hands on anyone, and the "signs and wonder" cease with their ministry since the SIGNS (1 Cor. 1:22) are for Israel (Ex. 4:30). There is no indication that anyone is given these "signs" unless they receive them directly from Apostolic hands (Mk. 16:17-19) and there is no case recorded where Titus, Silas, Timothy, Barnabas, etc. passed on any of this to anyone. If someone wants to claim "signs" today, why don't they go all the way - raise the dead! Paul and Peter did - (Acts 9 & 20).

Vs. 23

[1]. "...determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God..." As noted in the introduction lesson the Book of Acts is one of the main stays (along with Eph 1:4 and Rom. 9:16) for the Calvinistic heresies of Absolute Predestination. Limited Atonement, Unconditional Election, and other non-Biblical nonsense. The reason why (Acts 2:21) is such a favorite with the Calvinists is because it places "determination" BEFORE foreknowledge. What is overlooked by the Calvinist is that this text has nothing to do with individual salvation. The only thing here that was predetermined was that Christ would be delivered. Foreknowledge precedes Predestination when Salvation is involved (Rom 8:29).

[2]. "...Ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:" Peter calls this "killing" in (Acts 3:15) which is an act that comes from the freewill. (Ex. 20:13) (See Lk. 17:1)

Vs. 24

[1]. "...pains of death..." This is plainly a reference to the things which attend death and these things are binding on the sinner. In the O.T. they were permanent bindings, for not even the saved entered Heaven; they went instead to "Abraham's bosom" (Lk. 16; Ex. 34:7). The only physical pain Jesus mentions on the cross is due to thirst, to "fulfill the scripture" (Jn. 19:28; Ps. 69:21). But, undoubtedly, the real cross-reference is to (Heb. 2:14), where men lived in fear of death all their life. It is the resurrection of Christ that looses men from this "pain" (1 Peter 1:3; Acts 26:18).

Vs. 25

[1]. "...For David speaketh concerning him... The citations are from (Ps. 16:8-11). The words attributed to Jesus Christ a, spoken by Daniel under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit (Mk. 12:36) and they picture Christ's attitude toward the Father when He (Jesus) was enduring the "pains of death." The Psalm-states that God the Father was Christ's strength and His "right hand" in time of trouble. Therefore, the Lord Jesus Christ could set His face like a flint (Isa. 50:7) to carry out God's will (in. 4:34) and esteem the death of the cross a joy (Heb. 12:1-3); He would not be moved from this purpose in a lifetime (Matt. 16:21-.24). Furthermore, He rejoiced in this will (Heb. 10:1-6) which is apparent by the wording "Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad;" (vs. 26).

Vs. 27

[1]. "Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell..." Every new translation I checked out said ! "Hades" instead of HELL! It just doesn't seem quite so strong! In understanding the great doctrine that comes from this verse, we-may understand why some would like to smokescreen it. QUESTION - If Jesus Christ did not go down to (and through) Hell, as a "Place of torment" (Lk. 16:28), WHERE ARE YOUR SINS? - (SEE HEB. 9:28).


A. Jesus Christ went into "the lower parts" of the earth before His resurrection (Eph 4:8-10; Matt. 12:39,40). These "lower parts" include a HELL where a man is "tormented in this flame" (Lk. 16:23).

B. If Jesus went only to Abraham's Bosom "Paradise" - See Lk. 23:43) and then returned with the captives (Eph. 4:8) what did He do with the sins that were "IN HIS OWN BODY" (1 Peter 2:24)?

C. Why are we told that the second time He appears "WITHOUT SIN" when the context is bearing sins? (SEE HEB. 9:28)

D. If Christ bore your sins in His own BODY and became SIN for you (2 Cor. 5:21) to the point of being made a curse (Gal. 3:13), what did He do with your sins?

E. The scapegoat of (Lev. 16) "bore the sins" away, in type. But Jesus Christ did not merely bear them: He carried them SOMEWHERE.

F. Christ's Spirit went back to the Father (Ecc. 3:21, Lk. 23:46) while His body went to the tomb of Joseph of Arimethea (Lk. 24:1-4). His soul went straight down into Hell (Isa 53:10), and through it, and back out the other side of Paradise, with the captivity led captive (Eph. 4:8-10).

Vs. 28

"...thou shalt make me full of joy with thy countenance." Clearly showing us that if we are saved, we should have the "Joy, joy, joy, down in our hearts," for the countenance has at least shined, spiritually, in our hearts (2 Cor. 4:6). This means that the second fruit of the Spirit (Gal. 5:22) should be manifest at all times and especially so when dealing with the truth (1 Cor. 13:6).

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